Just asking.
Pauli's Exclusion Principle says two fermions cannot occupy the same quantum state. But two bosons can - according to Bose-Einstein statistics, and we have all the weird Bose-Einstein condensates produced in recent years to attest to the theory.
Question: can anyone explain why? (Please note, I'm not asking "can anyone" in any implied "wow! it's really spooky! no one really knows...! woooooooooo!" kind of way).
What I mean is, if a number of bosons can have the same quantum state and fermions can't, then within the bosons-made-of-fermions, the fermions must all have different quantum states, mustn't they? How does that come about or manifest itself?
Just asking.
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Welcome to The Lotus Position, an intermittent collection of extempore navel gazings, ponderings, whinges, whines, pontifications and diatribes.
Everything is based on a Sample of One: these are my views, my experiences... caveat lector... read the Disclaimer
Everything is based on a Sample of One: these are my views, my experiences... caveat lector... read the Disclaimer
The Budapest Office - Castro Bisztro, Madach ter
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Ponder, Scribble, Ponder (Photo Erdotahi Aron)
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